STUDY IQ JUDICIARYAIBE 2025SET A
Q1. If a bailiff executes an eviction based on a civil court order later declared void for lack of jurisdiction, what protection does Section 78 of the Indian Penal Code provide? (a) The bailiff is punishable as the order was invalid from the beginning (b) The bailiff can be punished only with a reduced penalty (c) The bailiff is exempt if he acted in good faith under the order (d) The bailiff is required to compensate the evicted person
Answer: (c) The bailiff is exempt if he acted in good faith under the order.
Explanation: Section 78 IPC protects a person who performs an act pursuant to a court's judgment or order which is later found void, provided the person acted in good faith believing the court had jurisdiction.
Q2. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum number of consecutive days an offender may be kept in solitary confinement at a time? (a) Seven (b) Ten (c) Fourteen (d) Twenty-one
Answer: (c) Fourteen
Explanation: Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, the limit of solitary confinement in one continuous period is 14 days; rules provide intervals between such periods and further monthly limits when imprisonment exceeds three months.
Q3. According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, what is the maximum limit of compensation payable in the case of death due to a motor vehicle accident under no-fault liability? (a) Twenty five thousand (b) Fifty thousand (c) One lakh rupees (d) Seventy five thousand rupees
Answer: (b) Fifty thousand
Explanation: Section 140 of the Motor Vehicles Act lays down a no-fault liability for certain motor accident deaths/disablements; the statutory fixed compensation under this chapter is Rs.50,000 for death (and Rs.25,000 for permanent disablement) under the no-fault scheme.
Q4. Assertion (A) / Reason (R) Assertion (A): An employee can be deemed to be in continuous service for one year if he has worked for 365 days in the preceding twelve months, without any interruption. Reason (R): Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, continuous service may also include periods of interruption due to sickness, accident, leave, lay-off, strike, or lock-out not caused by the employee's fault.Options: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer: (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Explanation: The Assertion as worded that one must work 365 days in the preceding 12 months without interruption is false. The Payment of Gratuity Act's definition of "continuous service" allows interruptions (sickness, accident, leave, lay-off, strike, lock-out, etc.) without breaking continuity; thus (R) is true and (A) false.
Q5. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: Under the Indian Penal Code, if a person harbours an offender who has escaped custody for an offence punishable with imprisonment up to 3 years, he shall be punished with imprisonment up to 7 years. Statement 2: The law provides an exception for harbouring or concealing by the husband or wife of the offender. In the context of the above statements under the Indian Penal Code, which one of the following is correct? (a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false (b) Only Statement 1 is true (c) Only Statement 2 is true (d) Both the Statements are true
Answer: (c) Only Statement 2 is true.
Explanation: Statement 1 (as worded) is incorrect in punishment detail; Statement 2 is correct creates certain exceptions (e.g., spouse) under harbouring/concealment provisions.
Q6. If a person attempts an offence punishable with a maximum of 10 years imprisonment, what is the maximum term of imprisonment that can be imposed under Section 62 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023? (a) Five years (b) Seven years (c) Ten years (d) Three years
Answer: (a) Five years
Explanation: Under Section 62 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, where no specific punishment for attempt is provided, an attempt may be punished by up to one-half of the maximum imprisonment prescribed for the substantive offence. For an offence with maximum 10 years, the attempt can attract up to 5 years.
Q7. A juvenile aged 14 years is brought before the court for an offence not punishable with death or imprisonment for life. Under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, will the case primarily fall? (a) Section 27 (b) Section 125 (c) Section 302 (d) Section 482
Answer: (a) Section 27
Explanation: Section 27 CrPC deals with jurisdiction in cases concerning juveniles and related procedure; juvenile matters are also governed by the Juvenile Justice statutes and special procedure.
Q8. Under Section 209(1) of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, within how many days from the date of framing of charges can accused file an application for Plea bargaining? (a) 15 (b) 30 (c) 45 (d) 60
Answer: (b) 30
Explanation: Under the BNSS (Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita) framework as reflected in the question, the time for filing plea bargaining application after framing of charge is 30 days.
Q9. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, if a person is ordered to pay a fine of ₹4,000 but fails to do so, what is the maximum term of imprisonment? (a) One year (b) Two months (c) Four months (d) Six months
Answer: (b) Two months
Explanation: For non-payment of specified fines the statutory conversion to imprisonment is limited and proportionate; for the fine amount in the question the maximum simple imprisonment permitted is two months.
Q10. According to Section 18 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what is the minimum period of practice as an advocate required to be considered eligible for appointment as a Public Prosecutor or Additional Public Prosecutor? (a) Three years (b) Five years (c) Seven years (d) Ten years
Answer: (c) Seven years
Explanation: Section 18 of BNSS prescribes minimum practice requirements for appointment as Public Prosecutor / Additional Public Prosecutor as seven years' practice.
Q11. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when can facts that are otherwise irrelevant be considered relevant? (a) Only when they prove the guilt of the accused directly (b) Only when they form part of a dying declaration (c) When they are inconsistent with a fact in issue or relevant fact (d) When they are part of an admission made in writing
Answer: (c) When they are inconsistent with a fact in issue or relevant fact.
Explanation: Under the Indian Evidence Act, facts otherwise irrelevant may become relevant when they are inconsistent with or have tendency to disprove a fact in issue or a relevant fact (e.g., plea of alibi).
Q12. What conditions must be satisfied for prior evidence to be relevant under section 33 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872? (a) The witness must have died (b) The proceeding was between same parties or their representatives in interest (c) The evidence must have published in government gazette (d) The evidence must have corroborated with expert opinion
Answer: (b) The proceeding was between same parties or their representatives in interest.
Explanation: Prior evidence is admissible when the prior proceeding involved the same parties or their representatives in interest, and the other conditions in Section 33 are met.
Q13. During a court trial, the defence lawyer objects to the admissibility of certain papers produced as evidence. The judge clarifies that only documents categorized as public documents under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, can be accepted without strict proof. Which category of documents would fall under public documents in this context? (a) Draft agreements between individuals (b) Personal diaries of government officials (c) Internal notes of a private company (d) Judicial and executive acts of public officers
Answer: (d) Judicial and executive acts of public officers.
Explanation: Public documents include official acts, records and orders of public officers, which can be accepted as public documents under the Evidence Act without stricter proof.
Q14. Which condition must be satisfied for things said or done by one conspirator to be admissible against others under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023? (a) The statement must be made after the conspiracy has ended. (b) The statement must involve unrelated matters of personal benefit. (c) There must be reasonable ground to believe a conspiracy exists. (d) There must be proof that each conspirator personally committed the act.
Answer: (c) There must be reasonable ground to believe a conspiracy exists.
Explanation: Statements or acts by a conspirator are admissible against others where there are reasonable grounds to believe a conspiracy existed and the statements were made in furtherance of the conspiracy.
Q15. As per Section 30 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, if a Magistrate sentenced a person to two years' imprisonment and a fine, what is the maximum imprisonment he may impose in default of payment of the fine? (a) 1 year (b) 2 years (c) 6 months (d) 3 months
Answer: (c) 6 months
Explanation: Section 30 CrPC limits imprisonment in default of payment of fine to the statutory maximum allowable by the sentencing Magistrate; where the sentence and fine are as in the question, the maximum default imprisonment formulas limit default to six months.
Q16. As per the Constitution of India, after the 86th Constitutional Amendment, which Directive Principle was modified to ensure early childhood care and education below the age of 6? (a) Article 39 (b) Article 41 (c) Article 47 (d) Article 45
Answer: (d) Article 45
Explanation: After the 86th Constitutional Amendment the Directive Principle regarding early childhood care and education below age six was reflected in Article 45.
Q17. According to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, on whom is the duty cast to take security when an execution order is challenged in appeal? (a) Only the High Court exercising writ jurisdiction (b) The Appellate Court hearing the appeal (c) The District Registrar of Property Records (d) Police authority of concerned jurisdiction
Answer: (b) The Appellate Court hearing the appeal.
Explanation: When execution is stayed or challenged in appeal, the appellate court dealing with the appeal is the authority to direct taking of security, as per CPC execution/appeal provisions.
Q18. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, how many High Court Judges constitute the judicial membership of the Rule Committee? (a) Three Judges of the High Court (b) Two Judges of the High Court (c) Four Judges of the High Court (d) Five Judges of the High Court
Answer: (a) Three Judges of the High Court.
Explanation: The Rule Committee's judicial membership includes three High Court judges (judicial members), as per the relevant rules referred to in the Code of Civil Procedure framework.
Q19. According to The Copyright Act, 1957, what is ordinarily the maximum punishment for copyright infringement under Section 63? (a) Imprisonment up to three years and fine up to two lakh rupees (b) Imprisonment up to two years and fine up to one lakh rupees (c) Imprisonment up to five years and fine up to three lakh rupees (d) Imprisonment up to seven years and fine up to five lakh rupees
Answer: (a) Imprisonment up to three years and fine up to two lakh rupees.
Explanation: Section 63 Copyright Act ordinarily prescribes imprisonment up to three years and fine up to Rs.2,00,000 for infringement in standard cases.
Q20. As per the Constitution of India, a linguistic community in India seeks to preserve its unique script and literature. Which constitutional provision guarantees them the right to conserve the same? (a) Article 28(1) (b) Article 29(1) (c) Article 30(2) (d) Article 32
Answer: (b) Article 29(1).
Explanation: Article 29(1) protects sections of citizens with distinct language, script or culture and the right to conserve them.
Q21. Under Section 58 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, what is the maximum period of detention in civil prison for a decree amount exceeding ₹5,000? (a) Six weeks (b) Two months (c) Three months (d) Six months
Answer: (c) Three months.
Explanation: Section 58 CPC provides graduated maximum civil detention periods; for decree amounts exceeding Rs.5,000 the maximum permissible period is three months.
Q22. Which of the following situations falls within Section 58(1)(b) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908? (a) Decree for 1,800, detention up to three months (b) Decree for 3,500, detention up to six weeks (c) Decree for 6,200, detention up to six months (d) Decree for 10,000, detention up to one year
Answer: (b) Decree for 3,500, detention up to six weeks.
Explanation: For decree amounts not exceeding Rs.5,000 Section 58(1)(b) caps detention at six weeks; Rs.3,500 falls into this bracket.
Q23. A civil suit is filed against Ajay, and the court issues summons requiring him to appear. After receiving the summons, Ajay consults his lawyer to understand the timeline for filing his written statement of defence under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Within how many days from the date of service of summons must he submit his written statement? (a) Thirty days (b) Fifteen days (c) Sixty days (d) Ninety days
Answer: (a) Thirty days.
Explanation: Order VIII Rule 1 CPC provides that the defendant should file the written statement within thirty days from service of summons (subject to court discretion for extension).
Q24. How long does the registered address furnished under Section 14A(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, remain valid if not changed? (a) Six years after final determination of the cause (b) Three years after the institution of the suit (c) Two years after final determination of the cause (d) Five years from the date of decree
Answer: (c) Two years after final determination of the cause.Explanation: The registered address for service under the relevant CPC provision (Order VI Rule 14A(1) / related) remains valid for two years after final determination unless changed.
Q25. According to Section 25(a) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, what happens if the claimant fails to submit his statement of claim without sufficient cause? (a) The tribunal adjourns the case indefinitely (b) The tribunal imposes a penalty but continues proceedings (c) The tribunal assumes the claim is admitted (d) The tribunal terminates the proceedings
Answer: (d) The tribunal terminates the proceedings.Explanation: Section 25(a) Arbitration & Conciliation Act allows termination where claimant fails to submit statement of claim without sufficient cause.
Q26. What is the time limit for solemnizing the marriage under Section 10 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954, after its decision? (a) One month (b) Two months (c) Six months (d) Three months
Answer: (d) Three months.Explanation: Under Section 10 (and related provisions) of the Special Marriage Act, a marriage must be solemnized within three months of the Central Government's decision where a case is transmitted to it.
Q27. What is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed under Section 31 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 for breach of protection order? (a) Six months (b) One year (c) Two years (d) Three years
Answer: (b) One year.Explanation: Section 31 Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act prescribes imprisonment up to one year for willful breach of protection orders (or fine, or both).
Q28. Under which provision of the Indian Constitution can a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) be filed directly in the Supreme Court? (a) Article 21 (b) Article 32 (c) Article 226 (d) Article 14
Answer: (b) Article 32.Explanation: A PIL for enforcement of fundamental rights can be filed directly in the Supreme Court under Article 32 (remedy for violation of fundamental rights).
Q29. Under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, what is the minimum period that must elapse between the publication of notice and the appearance of persons interested before the Collector? (a) Not less than 7 days (b) Not less than 60 days (c) Not less than 15 days (d) Not less than 30 days
Answer: (c) Not less than 15 days.Explanation: Under Section 9(2) Land Acquisition Act, 1894, a minimum of fifteen days is given between publication and appearance before the Collector.
Q30. Under which provision can a citizen file a public case in the Court of Magistrate regarding issues of public interest? (a) Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code (b) Section 144 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (c) Section 133 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (d) Section 482 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Answer: (c) Section 133 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.Explanation: Section 133 CrPC empowers Magistrates to act in cases affecting public nuisance and public interest; citizens may invoke this provision.
Q31. According to Section 44AA(2)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, a person carrying on business must maintain books of account if income from business or profession exceeds: (a) 1,20,000 (b) 50,000 (c) 5,00,000 (d) 10,00,000
Answer: (a) 1,20,000.Explanation: Section 44AA(2) (i) Income-tax Act requires maintenance of books when gross receipts/income from business exceed Rs.1,20,000.
Q32. Under the Patents Act, 1970, which situation prevents a patent application from being published even after the expiry of the prescribed period? (a) When the applicant has filed a request for early examination (b) When secrecy direction is imposed under Section 35 (c) When the patent has already been granted by the Controller (d) When the applicant has requested for an extension of time
Answer: (b) When secrecy direction is imposed under Section 35.Explanation: Under the Patents Act the Central Government may impose secrecy directions (national security) which prevent publication of an application even after expiry of the normal period.
Q33. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Any person having an interest in a newspaper declared forfeited, may apply to the High Court to set aside the declaration within two months of its publication in the Official Gazette. Reason (R): The Special Bench of the High Court to hear such applications must always consist of exactly three judges, regardless of the strength of that High Court. In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, which one of the following is correct? (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.Explanation: It is true an interested person may apply to High Court within two months to set aside forfeiture of a newspaper; the assertion about a Special Bench always consisting of exactly three judges is false - bench composition depends on High Court rules.
Q34. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, admissions are generally relevant and may be proved against the person making them, but cannot ordinarily be proved by or on behalf of that person. Statement 2: An admission can still be proved on behalf of the person making it if it relates to the existence of a state of mind or body, made at or about the time when such condition existed, and is supported by conduct showing its truthfulness. In the context of the above statements under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which one of the following is correct? (a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false (b) Only Statement 1 is true (c) Only Statement 2 is true (d) Both the Statements are true
Answer: (d) Both the Statements are true.Explanation: Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam admissions are generally relevant and, in limited circumstances (state of mind/body made when condition existed plus supporting conduct), can be proved on behalf of maker.
Q35. Which type of allowance qualifies for deduction under Section 16(ii) of the Income Tax Act, 1961? (a) House Rent Allowance granted by private companies (b) Entertainment Allowance for Government employees (c) Transport Allowance to all salaried person (d) Leave Travel Allowance given for domestic travel
Answer: (b) Entertainment Allowance for Government employees.Explanation: Section 16(ii) Income-tax Act permits deduction for certain entertainment allowances available to government employees (private sector employees do not get that particular deduction).
Q36. Read the given statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a negotiable instrument made, drawn, accepted, or transferred without consideration creates no obligation of payment between the parties to the transaction. Statement 2: According to the same Act, if the consideration for which a negotiable instrument was issued fails in part, the holder in immediate relation is entitled to recover only the proportionate amount corresponding to the consideration actually received. In the context of the above statements under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, which one of the following is correct? (a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false (b) Only Statement 1 is true (c) Only Statement 2 is true (d) Both Statements are true
Answer: (d) Both Statements are true.Explanation: Under Negotiable Instruments Act an instrument without consideration creates no obligation (statement 1 true); if consideration fails in part, the holder in immediate relation can recover proportionate amount (statement 2 true).
Q37. In the following question, a statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement: Under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, when an offence is committed by a company, every person who was directly in charge of and responsible to the company at the time of the offence, as well as the company itself, is deemed guilty. However, a person may escape liability if he proves that the offence was committed without his knowledge or that he exercised due diligence to prevent it. Conclusions: I. A company as well as its responsible officers may be held liable for environmental offences under the Act. II. An officer of a company can never escape liability once the company is found guilty of an offence. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which one of the following is correct? (a) Only Conclusion I follows (b) Only Conclusion II follows (c) Both Conclusions I and II follow (d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Answer: (a) Only Conclusion I follows.Explanation: Under the Environment (Protection) Act both company and responsible officers may be held liable; however officers can escape liability by proving lack of knowledge or due diligence, so Conclusion II (that an officer can never escape liability) is false.
Q38. Under Section 24(a) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, what percentage of the annual value of an income from house property is allowed as a standard deduction? (a) 20 (b) 40 (c) 30 (d) 50
Answer: (c) 30Explanation: Section 24(a) Income-tax Act permits 30% standard deduction on annual value of house property.
Q39. After a government notification is issued for acquiring Mr. Mehta's farmland under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, he notices that the income from his crops steadily decreases until the authorities finally take possession. He approaches the court claiming compensation for this reduction in profits. According to the Act, what type of loss is compensable in such a case? (a) Loss due to falling land prices in the market (b) Loss due to cancellation of tenant agreements (c) Loss of employment in nearby areas (d) Bona fide diminution of profits due to acquisition process
Answer: (d) Bona fide diminution of profits due to acquisition process.Explanation: Section 23(1)(f) Land Acquisition Act, 1894 compensates bona fide diminution of profits arising between publication of declaration and Collector taking possession.
Q40. According to Section 35A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, what is the maximum amount a Court can award as compensatory costs in ordinary cases? (a) 2,000 (b) 10,000 (c) 5,000 (d) 3,000
Answer: (d) 3,000Explanation: Section 35A CPC limits ordinary compensatory costs to not exceed Rs.3,000 in ordinary cases.
Q41. According to the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when is the communication of an acceptance complete against the proposer? (a) When the acceptor prepares the letter of acceptance (b) When it is dispatched beyond the control of the acceptor (c) When it is delivered to the office of the proposer party (d) When the proposer acknowledges receipt in his records
Answer: (b) When it is dispatched beyond the control of the acceptor.Explanation: Under the postal rule and Section 4 Indian Contract Act, acceptance is complete when put into course of transmission so as to be out of acceptor's control.
Q42. Rahul rents a shop in the city for running his retail business. Later, the landlord decides to terminate the lease, and there is no special contract between the parties. Since the lease is for purposes other than agriculture or manufacturing, the landlord wonders how many days' notice he must legally give under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, to end the lease. What is the required notice period? (a) Five days' notice (b) Fifteen days' notice (c) Forty-five days' notice (d) Sixty days' notice
Answer: (b) Fifteen days' notice.Explanation: Transfer of Property Act Section 106 (and relevant rules) requires 15 days' notice to determine lease for purposes other than agriculture/manufacturing; commercial leases fall in this category.
Q43. According to the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, what is the maximum sentence of imprisonment that a Magistrate may pass in a summary trial under Section 143? (a) Six months' imprisonment (b) Two years' imprisonment (c) One year's imprisonment (d) Three years' imprisonment
Answer: (c) One year's imprisonment.Explanation: In summary trials under Section 143 NI Act and summary procedure constraints, imprisonment for summary trial is capped so that despite substantive maximums the practical cap is 1 year under summary procedure.
Q44. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement: As per Section 157 of the Companies Act, 2013, every company must, within fifteen days of receiving intimation under Section 156, furnish the Director Identification Number (DIN) of all its Directors to the Registrar with prescribed fees. Failure to comply attracts penalties. Conclusions: I. If a company fails to furnish the DIN, it can be penalized. II. Every officer of the company in default is also liable for penalties. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct? (a) Only Conclusion I follows (b) Only Conclusion II follows (c) Both Conclusions I and II follow (d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Answer: (a) Only Conclusion I follows.Explanation: Section 157 Companies Act requires furnishing DINs within 15 days; the company can be penalized (Conclusion I). Liability of officers depends on other provisions and is not automatically concluded by this single provision as framed.
Q45. Read the following Statements related to the Information Technology Act, 2000 and choose the correct option. Statement 1: Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, a Digital Signature Certificate may be suspended by the Certifying Authority on the request of the subscriber, an authorized representative, or if it is considered necessary in the public interest. Statement 2: Under the same Act, a Digital Signature Certificate can remain suspended indefinitely without providing the subscriber an opportunity of being heard. (a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false (b) Only Statement 1 is true (c) Only Statement 2 is true (d) Both the Statements are true
Answer: (b) Only Statement 1 is true.Explanation: Statement 1 is correct Certifying Authorities can suspend DSCs on specified grounds; Statement 2 (suspension indefinitely without hearing) is not consistent with principles of natural justice and the Act/rules ordinarily provide safeguards so Statement 2 is false.
Q46. According to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, the appropriate Government credits ₹15,000 to the Child and Adolescent Labour Rehabilitation Fund for each child or adolescent for whom the fine amount from the employer has been deposited. The amount in the Fund is deposited or invested in banks, and the interest accrued is also payable to the child or adolescent. Conclusions: I. The child or adolescent is entitled not only to the credited amount but also to the interest accrued on it. II. The Government is not required to deposit any money other than what is collected as fines from the employer. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct? (a) Only Conclusion I follows (b) Only Conclusion II follows (c) Both Conclusions I and II follow (d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Answer: (c) Both Conclusions I and II follow.Explanation: The Rehabilitation Fund rules credit Rs.15,000 and accrued interest to the child/adolescent (I follows); the Government is also empowered to manage/deposit additional amounts and certain matching contributions can occur; the solution set indicated both conclusions follow as per Act and Rules.
Q47. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, prescribes the death penalty for certain forms of gang rape. Reason (R): The purpose of this provision is to make all sexual offences non-bailable. In the context of the above assertion and reason, which one of the following is correct? (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.Explanation: BNSS prescribes severe punishments for aggravated sexual offences; however the reason that the provision's purpose is to make all sexual offences non-bailable is not an accurate statutory explanation hence (A) true, (R) false.
Q48. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, if the proclaimed person appears within the time specified in the proclamation, the Court shall release the attached property. Reason (R): The attachment of property under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is intended to compel the appearance of the proclaimed person before the Court, not to permanently deprive him of his property. In the context of the above assertion and reason, which one of the following is correct? (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).Explanation: Under the BNSS regime attachment of property for a proclaimed person is primarily to compel appearance; if the person appears in time, property is released the purpose is not permanent deprivation.
Q49. Read the given Statements and choose the correct option. A dispute arises between two companies regarding the enforcement of their arbitration clause. Examine the following statements: Statement 1: An arbitration agreement must be in writing, and it can be contained in a contract, an exchange of letters, telex, telegrams, or electronic communications. Statement 2: An arbitration agreement may be implied solely from the conduct of the parties, without any written record. (a) Only Statement 1 is true (b) Only Statement 2 is true (c) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true (d) Neither Statement 1 nor 2 is true
Answer: (a) Only Statement 1 is true.Explanation: Arbitration agreement must be in writing (contract, letters, emails, pleadings); an arbitration agreement cannot be inferred purely from conduct without a written record in most situations hence only Statement 1 is true.
Q50. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement: According to the Advocates Act, 1961, when the term of a State Bar Council expires without an election, the Bar Council of India shall constitute a Special Committee consisting of the ex officio member of the State Bar Council as Chairman and two nominated members. The Special Committee has the power to discharge all functions of the State Bar Council until the new Council is constituted, and elections must be held within six months unless the period is extended by the Bar Council of India. Conclusions: I. The Special Committee is empowered to handle pending disciplinary matters of the State Bar Council. II. The Bar Council of India may extend the six-month period for holding elections to the State Bar Council, for recorded reasons. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct? (a) Only Conclusion I follows (b) Only Conclusion II follows (c) Both Conclusions I and II follow (d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Answer: (c) Both Conclusions I and II follow.Explanation: The Special Committee constituted by Bar Council of India on expiry without election exercises powers to discharge functions (including disciplinary matters) till new Council is constituted and the BCI may extend the six-month period in specified circumstances.
Q51. Read the given statements: Statement 1: Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, a deduction equal to 30% of the annual value is allowable while computing income from house property. Statement 2: Where the property has been acquired or constructed with borrowed capital, the maximum deduction for interest payable on such capital is capped at ₹2,00,000/- subject to conditions. Options: (a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false (b) Only Statement 1 is true (c) Only Statement 2 is true (d) Both Statements are true
Answer: (d) Both Statements are true.Explanation: Section 24 permits 30% standard deduction on annual value (Statement 1 true). Statement 2 refers to the cap on interest deduction under specified conditions (e.g., self-occupied house interest deduction caps/conditions apply).
Q52. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a daughter in a Joint Hindu Family governed by Mitakshara Law becomes a coparcener by birth in her own right, just like a son. Reason (R): This provision grants daughters the same rights, liabilities, and disabilities in coparcenary property as those of sons. In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, which one of the following is correct? (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).Explanation: By amendment and interpretation under the Hindu Succession framework daughters became coparceners by birth with the same rights/liabilities as sons; the Reason explains why that status equates to the same coparcenary rights.
Q53. As per the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an acceptance must be absolute and unqualified. What is the legal effect if an offeree's response to a proposal introduces a new term?
(a) It becomes a valid acceptance, and the new term is incorporated as a mere suggestion.
(b) It operates as a valid acceptance if the new term is not a material alteration.
(c) It constitutes a counter-proposal, thereby rejecting the original proposal.
(d) It suspends the original proposal until the new term is accepted or rejected by the proposer.
Answer: (c) It constitutes a counter-proposal, thereby rejecting the original proposal.Explanation: Under the Indian Contract Act an acceptance that introduces a new term is not acceptance but a counter-offer (rejects original offer).
Q54. The Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides for specific situations where an agreement without consideration is not void. Which of the following agreements is valid despite the lack of fresh consideration? (a) An oral promise by 'A' to pay 'B' 5000 for a service 'B' voluntarily rendered to 'A' last month. (b) A written and registered promise by a husband, out of natural love and affection, to transfer a property to his wife. (c) A promise to subscribe 1 lakh to a public charitable fund. (d) A promise made by a minor upon attaining majority to pay a debt incurred during his minority.
Answer: (b) A written and registered promise by a husband, out of natural love and affection, to transfer a property to his wife.Explanation: Section 25 Indian Contract Act recognizes certain exceptions to the requirement of fresh consideration a written and registered promise out of natural love and affection between near relations is a valid exception if in the required form.
Q55. In the context of delegated legislation, the judicial doctrine that prevents a legislature from conferring "uncontrolled legislative power" on the administration is known as the doctrine of: (a) Ultra Vires (b) Excessive Delegation (c) Conditional Legislation (d) Separation of Powers
Answer: (b) Excessive Delegation.Explanation: The judicial doctrine preventing legislature from conferring uncontrolled law-making power on the executive is commonly described as the doctrine against excessive delegation (judicial review limits unguided delegation).
Q56. For a petition for nullity of marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, on the ground that consent was obtained by fraud, what is a statutory bar to granting the decree? (a) The petition was filed more than six months after the discovery of the fraud. (b) The petitioner has lived with the respondent as husband and wife after the discovery of the fraud. (c) The fraud relates to the social status of the respondent's family. (d) The parties have not attempted reconciliation through a counselling center.
Answer: (b) The petitioner has lived with the respondent as husband and wife after the discovery of the fraud.Explanation: For nullity petitions for fraud under Hindu Marriage Act a bar exists where petitioner cohabited after discovery of fraud (acquiescence/long cohabitation can be a statutory or equitable bar).
Q57. In the absence of an agreement between the parties, the arbitration proceedings are said to have commenced under Section 21 of The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996: (a) On the date of appointment of arbitrator. (b) On the date the arbitration agreement is signed. (c) On the date the request for reference is received by the respondent. (d) On the date the arbitral tribunal issues notice.
Answer: (c) On the date the request for reference is received by the respondent.Explanation: Section 21 Arbitration Act marks commencement (when no agreement) as the date respondent receives the request for arbitration.
Q58. Which Public Interest Litigation case expanded Article 21 of the Indian Constitution to include the right to enjoyment of pollution-free water and air? (a) Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar, (1991) 1 SCC 598 (b) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, (1993) 2 SCC 746 (c) Sheela Barse v. Union of India, (1986) 3 SCC 596 (d) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation, (1985) 3 SCC 545
Answer: (a) Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar, (1991) 1 SCC 598Explanation: Public interest jurisprudence in Subhash Kumar recognized environmental aspects under Article 21 including right to pollution-free life.
Q59. Which Public Interest Litigation case resulted in the Supreme Court of India laying down the principle of 'Absolute Liability'? (a) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086 (b) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, 1988 SCR (2) 530 (c) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath, (1997) 1 SCC 388 (d) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 734
Answer: (a) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086Explanation: The early M.C. Mehta decisions moved towards the principle of strict/absolute liability for hazardous industries.
Q60. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India has pointed out that the rule of nemo judex in causa sua is subject to the doctrine of necessity? (a) Sahni Silk Mills (P) Ltd. v. Employees' State Insurance Corporation, (1994) 5 SCC 346 (b) In Re: Delhi Laws Act, AIR 1951 SC 332 (c) J. Mohapatra & Co. v. State of Orissa, (1984) 4 SCC 103 (d) Union of India v. G. Ganayutham, (1997) 7 SCC 463
Answer: (c) J. Mohapatra & Co. v. State of Orissa, (1984) 4 SCC 103Explanation: This is the option listed in the question set for a case noting the doctrine of necessity as exception to nemo judex.
Q61. As per Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, for Res Judicata to be applicable on a subsequent suit, the former suit: I. Has been finally decided. II. Can only be instituted prior to the subsequent suit. III. Relates to the same matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit. IV. Is between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim. Select the correct answer: (a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (c) I, III and IV.Explanation: Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure lays down the rule of res judicata. For res judicata to apply, the former suit must have been heard and finally decided. It is also necessary that the matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit was the same matter directly and substantially in issue in the former suit. Further, both suits must involve the same parties. According to Explanation I of Section 11, the term "former suit" refers to a suit that has been decided prior to the suit in question, whether or not it was instituted before it, meaning that the date of institution is not relevant. Therefore, conditions I, III, and IV are the correct requirements.
Q62. Where the decree is for the payment of money, execution by detention in prison shall not be ordered unless, after giving the judgment-debtor an opportunity of showing cause, the Court is satisfied that the: I. Judgment-debtor is likely to abscond or leave the local limits of the jurisdiction of the Court. II. Judgment-debtor has, before the institution of the suit in which the decree was passed, dishonestly transferred any part of his property. III. Decree is for a sum for which the judgment-debtor was bound in a fiduciary capacity to account. IV. Judgment-debtor has, or has had since the date of the decree, the means to pay a substantial amount of the decree and neglected to pay the same. Select the correct answer: (a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (c) I, III and IV.Explanation: Section 51 of the Code of Civil Procedure empowers the court to enforce the execution of a decree by detention in prison, but only if specific conditions are met: (1) likely to abscond, (2) bound in fiduciary capacity, or (3) has means to pay but refuses. Dishonest transfers before the institution of the suit are not a condition under Section 51 (it typically considers bad faith after institution). Therefore, conditions I, III, and IV are applicable.
Q63. As per The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a decree ex parte can be set aside against a defendant: I. If he satisfies the Court that the summons was not duly served. II. If he satisfies the Court that he was prevented by any sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called on for hearing. III. If he satisfies the Court that there has been an irregularity in the service of summons despite the fact that the defendant had notice of the date of hearing and had sufficient time to appear and answer the plaintiff's claim. IV. Without notice being served on the opposite party. Select the correct answer: (a) I and II (b) I, II and III (c) I and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (a) I and II.Explanation: Order 9 Rule 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure provides for setting aside ex parte decrees if the summons was not duly served or if there was sufficient cause preventing appearance. However, a decree cannot be set aside merely for irregularity if notice was actually received (III is false) and notice must be served to the opposite party (IV is false).
Q64. When is a confession made by a person in police custody admissible under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023? (a) Only if it is made voluntarily in writing. (b) Only if it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate. (c) Only if it is supported by two independent witnesses. (d) Only if it is recorded after the charge sheet is filed.
Answer: (b) Only if it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate.Explanation: Section 23 BSA, 2023 states that no confession made by any person while in the custody of a police officer shall be proved against him unless it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate.
Q65. Which Section of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 pertains to expert opinions? (a) Section 38 (b) Section 39 (c) Section 36 (d) Section 46
Answer: (b) Section 39Explanation: Section 39 BSA, 2023 deals with Opinions of experts (foreign law, science, art, handwriting, etc.).
Q66. Which of the following statements is incorrect as per The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023? (a) A contracts, in writing, with B, for the delivery of indigo upon certain terms. The contract mentions the fact that B had paid A the price of other indigo contracted for, verbally, on another occasion. Oral evidence is offered that no payment was made for the other indigo. The evidence is admissible. (b) A agrees absolutely in writing to pay B one thousand rupees on 1st March, 2023. The fact that, at the same time, an oral agreement was made that the money should not be paid till 31st March, 2023, can be proved. (c) A enters into a written contract with B to work certain mines, the property of B, upon certain terms. A was induced to do so by a misrepresentation of B as to their value. This fact may be proved. (d) A orders goods from B by a letter in which nothing is said as to the time of payment, and accepts the goods on delivery. B sues A for the price. A may show that the goods were supplied on credit for a term still unexpired.
Answer: (b) - (The statement listed as option (b) is incorrect).Explanation: Under the BSA / evidence rules, a written absolute promise to pay with a contemporaneous oral agreement postponing payment cannot be proved by oral evidence (Parol Evidence Rule). Thus, the statement that it "can be proved" is incorrect.
Q67. As per The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, two persons are said to be within the "degrees of prohibited relationship" if: I. One is a lineal ascendant of the other, including relationship by adoption. II. One was the wife or husband of a lineal ascendant or descendant of the other, including relationship by half or uterine blood as well as by full blood. III. One was the wife of the brother or of the father's or mother's brother or of the grandfather's or grandmother's brother of the other. IV. The two are brother and sister, uncle and niece, aunt and nephew, or children of brother and sister or of two brothers or of two sisters. Select the correct answer: (a) I, III and IV (b) III and IV (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (d) I, II, III and IV.Explanation: Section 3(g) HMA, 1955 defines "degrees of prohibited relationship" covering all the listed relationships (lineal ascendants, spouses of lineal ascendants/descendants, certain wives of brothers/uncles, and siblings/uncle-niece/aunt-nephew).
Q68. Which Article lays down fundamental duty to protect and improve natural environment? (a) Article 48A (b) Article 39A (c) Article 51A(g) (d) Article 51A(h)
Answer: (c) Article 51A(g).Explanation: Fundamental duty to protect and improve natural environment is in Article 51A(g).
Q69. The grounds for decree for dissolution of marriage under Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 are that the: I. Whereabouts of the husband have not been known for a period of two years. II. Husband has been sentenced to imprisonment for a period of five years. III. Husband has failed to perform, without reasonable cause, his marital obligations for a period of two years. IV. Husband has neglected or has failed to provide for maintenance of his wife for a period of one year. Select the correct answer: (a) III and IV (b) I and II (c) I, II, III and IV (d) None of these
Answer: (d) None of theseExplanation: Section 2 of Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 specifies different periods: Whereabouts unknown = 4 years (not 2); Imprisonment = 7 years (not 5); Maintenance failure = 2 years (not 1); Marital obligations failure = 3 years (not 2). Thus, the options provided do not match the statutory periods accurately.
Q70. As per The Information Technology Act, 2000, "intermediary," with respect to any particular electronic records, means any person who on behalf of another person receives, stores or transmits that record, or provides any service with respect to that record and includes: I. Telecom service providers. II. Search engines. III. Cyber cafes. IV. Online-auction sites. Select the correct answer: (a) I and IV (b) I and II (c) I, II and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (d) I, II, III and IV. Explanation: Section 2(w) IT Act, 2000 defines "intermediary" to include telecom service providers, network service providers, internet service providers, web-hosting service providers, search engines, online payment sites, online-auction sites, online-market places and cyber cafes.
Q71. Under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, which of the following orders is not appealable? (a) Refusing to refer parties to arbitration under Section 8. (b) Refusing to appoint arbitrator under Section 11. (c) Refusing to grant any measure under Section 9. (d) Refusing to grant an interim measure under Section 17.
Answer: (b) Refusing to appoint arbitrator under Section 11. Explanation: Section 37 lists appealable orders (refusing Sec 8 reference, granting/refusing Sec 9 measure, setting aside/refusing to set aside Sec 34 award). It does not list refusal to appoint an arbitrator under Section 11 as appealable.
Q72. Under Section 9A of The Advocates Act, 1961, a legal aid committee constituted by a Bar Council shall consist of: (a) Not exceeding thirteen but not less than nine members. (b) Not exceeding eleven but not less than seven members. (c) Not exceeding nine but not less than five members. (d) Not exceeding seven but not less than three members.
Answer: (c) Not exceeding nine but not less than five members. Explanation: Section 9A(1) of the Advocates Act, 1961 states that each legal aid committee shall consist of a number of members "not exceeding nine but not less than five."
Q73. Which Section of the Advocates Act, 1961 provides for the disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India? (a) Section 35 (b) Section 36 (c) Section 37 (d) Section 38
Answer: (b) Section 36. Explanation: Section 36 deals with the Disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India.
Q74. Match List I (Ceneral Defences in Tort) with List II (Leading Cases) and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List I i. Act of God ii. Consent (Volenti non fit injuria) iii. Statutory Authority iv. Necessity List II
Vaughan v Taff Vale Rail Co. (1860) 5 H & N 679
Kirk v Gregory (1876) 1 Ex, D. 55
Nichols v Marsland (1876) 2 Ex. D, 1
Hall v. Brooklands Auto Racing Club (1933) 1 KB 20 Codes: (a) i-1: ii-2: iii-3; iv-4 (b) i-2: ii-3: iii-4; iv-1 (c) i-3: ii-4: iii-1; iv-2 (d) i-4: ii-1: iii-3; iv-2
Answer: (c) i-3: ii-4: iii-1; iv-2 Explanation: I. Act of God → Nichols v. Marsland (3) II. Consent → Hall v. Brooklands Auto Racing Club (4) (Note: Standard mapping for Consent in this list is Hall or Vaughan depending on interpretation, but the key provided maps it to Hall). III. Statutory Authority → Vaughan v. Taff Vale Rail Co. (1) IV. Necessity → Kirk v. Gregory (2)
Q75. The central consumer protection council, as provided under section3(2) of consumer protection act, 2019, shall, consist of: (a) a chairperson and 10 other members, or a chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed. (b) a chairperson and five other members (c) a chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed (d) a chairperson and ten other members
Answer: (c) a chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed Explanation: Section 3(2) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 states the Council consists of a Chairperson and "such number of other official or non-official members representing such interests as may be prescribed."
Q76. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India held that the Preamble is not part of the Constitution? (a) In re: The Kerala Education Bill, 1957, AIR 1958 SC 956 (b) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461 (c) In re: The Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves, AIR 1960 SC 845 (d) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India, AIR 1980 SC 1789
Answer: (c) In re: The Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves, AIR 1960 SC 845. Explanation: In Re: Berubari Union (1960), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. This was later overruled in Kesavananda Bharati.
Q77. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the subject-matter of laws made by Parliament to give effect to treaties and international agreements? (a) Article 249 (b) Article 251 (c) Article 253 (d) Article 255
Answer: (c) Article 253. Explanation: Article 253 gives Parliament power to make laws for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country.
Q78. In which of the following judgment/s was the issue of 'right to privacy' dealt with by the Supreme Court of India? I. Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors. (AIR 1963 SC 1295) II. PUCL v. Union of India (AIR 1997 SC 568) III. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) & Anr. v. Union of India & Ors. (2017) 10 SCC 1 IV. M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra (AIR 1954 SC 300) (a) II, III and IV (b) II and III (c) Only III (d) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (d) I, II, III and IV. Explanation: All four cases dealt with the right to privacy (M.P. Sharma and Kharak Singh initially denied it as a fundamental right/limited it; PUCL expanded it regarding wiretaps; Puttaswamy affirmed it as a fundamental right overruling earlier judgments).
Q79. Which of the following actions is required if territory is ceded to any other country by the Union of India? (a) Executive action of the Union of India (b) Presidential proclamation, exercising constitutional power while issuing proclamation (c) Executive action of the Union of India, and then legislative enactment by the Parliament (d) Legislative enactment by the Parliament, and then executive action of the Union of India
Answer: (d) Legislative enactment by the Parliament, and then executive action of the Union of India. Explanation: Ceding territory requires a constitutional amendment (Legislative enactment) as per the Berubari Union case, followed by executive action to implement it.
Q80. The President has referred a question to the Supreme Court and the Supreme Court, as per Article 143 of the Constitution of India, has advised the President accordingly. Can the advice given by the Supreme Court be considered as 'judicial precedent'? (a) No, because it is not considered as a judgment (b) Yes, because it is considered as a judgment (c) No, because it is not pronounced in open court (d) Yes, because it is pronounced in open court
Answer: (a) No, because it is not considered as a judgment. Explanation: Advisory opinions under Article 143 are not judgments in a lis (dispute) and are generally considered not binding judicial precedents, though they carry high persuasive value.
Q81. In a criminal trial of defamation, the High Court has restrained publication of news on the given case. Which constitutional powers has been exercised by the High Court while passing the given order? (a) Power to issue the writ of mandamus (b) Power to issue the writ of prohibition (c) Inherent power (d) Residuary power
Answer: (c) Inherent power. Explanation: Restraining publication to ensure fair trial is an exercise of the High Court's inherent powers as a court of record to prevent interference with the administration of justice.
Q82. Which of the following provisions is used as the source of the fundamental right of 'Right to Information' declared by the Supreme Court of India? (a) Article 19(1)(b), Constitution of India (b) Right to Information Act, 2005 (c) Article 19(1)(a), Constitution of India (d) Article 19(1), Constitution of India and Right to Information Act, 2005 collectively
Answer: (c) Article 19(1)(a), Constitution of India. Explanation: The Supreme Court has held that the Right to Information flows from the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a).
Q83. Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India deals with the subject matter of 'Validation of certain Acts & Regulations'? (a) Schedule IX (b) Schedule III (c) Schedule V (d) Schedule X
Answer: (a) Schedule IX. Explanation: Schedule IX deals with the validation of certain Acts and Regulations (originally land reforms) to protect them from judicial review.
Q84. Consider the following statements regarding Article 32 of the Constitution of India: I. The Article is silent about the locus standi about who may approach the Supreme Court. II. The Article is silent about the opposite party against whom the relief under Article 32 may be granted. III. The Article creates room for even a sixth type of writ within its scope. Select the correct answer: (a) I is false (b) II is false (c) III is false (d) All Statements are true
Answer: (d) All Statements are true
Q85. By virtue of Articles 129 and 215, the Supreme Court of India and the High Courts in the States are courts of record and possess contempt jurisdiction. What is true about the lower judiciary in the same connection? (a) Lower Judiciary has to bear with its contempt. (b) Lower Judiciary has to complain about its contempt to the Supreme Court of India. (c) Lower Judiciary can itself punish the contemnor for having caused its contempt. (d) The respective High Courts can take up the matter of such a contempt under whose jurisdiction the lower court falls.
Answer: (d) The respective High Courts can take up the matter of such a contempt under whose jurisdiction the lower court falls. Explanation: High Courts have supervisory jurisdiction and can punish for contempt of subordinate courts.
Q86. The Supreme Court of India in R.K. Anand v. Registrar, Delhi High Court (2009) 8 SCC 106 held an advocate guilty of misconduct for: (a) Threatening judges and use of abusive language during proceedings. (b) Filing false affidavits and making reckless allegations against judges. (c) Interfering in a criminal trial by attempting to influence a witness. (d) Circulating scandalous pamphlets against a sitting Chief Justice.
Answer: (c) Interfering in a criminal trial by attempting to influence a witness. Explanation: The case involved a sting operation showing an attempt to influence a key witness in the BMW hit-and-run case.
Q87. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List I i. Legitimacy of children of void and voidable marriages ii. Punishment of bigamy iii. Judicial separation iv. Voidable marriages List II
Section 10, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Section 12, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Section 17, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Section 16, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 Codes: (a) 1-3; II-4; III-1; IV-2 (b) 1-4; II-3; III-2; IV-1 (c) 1-4; II-3; III-1; IV-2 (d) I-1; II-2; III-4; IV-3
Answer: (c) 1-4; II-3; III-1; IV-2 Explanation: i (Legitimacy) -> Sec 16; ii (Bigamy) -> Sec 17; iii (Judicial Separation) -> Sec 10; iv (Voidable) -> Sec 12.
Q88. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, what happens if the principal debtor leaves part of the debt unpaid and there are two or more co-sureties? (a) The creditor alone bears the unpaid portion of the debt. (b) The debtor's family becomes liable for the unpaid amount. (c) The co-sureties share the unpaid portion in equal contribution. (d) The entire unpaid portion is to be paid by the surety first approached.
Answer: (c) The co-sureties share the unpaid portion in equal contribution. Explanation: Under the Contract Act (Section 146), co-sureties contribute equally to make good any deficiency, subject to any contract to the contrary.
Q89. Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, when can a defendant in possession of movable property be compelled to deliver it to the plaintiff? (a) When the property is held as agent or trustee of the plaintiff. (b) When the property is held as mortgaged asset of the plaintiff. (c) When the property is held as lessee or sub-tenant of the plaintiff. (d) When the property is held as co-owner in common with the plaintiff.
Answer: (a) When the property is held as agent or trustee of the plaintiff.
Q90. Read the following statements and choose the correct option: Statement 1: Under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, a Joint Administrative Tribunal for two or more States exercises the same jurisdiction, powers, and authority as an Administrative Tribunal for those States. Statement 2: For the purposes of contempt, a Tribunal exercises powers similar to those of a High Court, and references to "High Court" in the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 are construed to include such Tribunals. In the context of the above statements under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, which one of the following is correct? (a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false (b) Only Statement 1 is true (c) Only Statement 2 is true (d) Both the Statements are true
Answer: (d) Both the Statements are true
Q91. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): A Money Bill can be introduced only in the House of the People (Lok Sabha) and not in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). Reason (R): The Council of States may only make recommendations on a Money Bill within 14 days, but the House of the People may accept or reject them, and in either case, the Bill is deemed to be passed. Options: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Q92. A company, registered under The Companies Act, 2013, is required to file a declaration of commencement of business before starting operations. The directors ignore this obligation, and the firm commences business activities without filing the declaration. How much penalty can be imposed on the company by the Registrar concerned for such non-compliance? (a) ₹25,000 (b) ₹50,000 (c) ₹75,000 (d) ₹1,00,000
Answer: (b) ₹50,000. Explanation: Companies Act penalty for commencing business without declaration attracts a penalty of Rs.50,000 on the company.
Q93. If multiple offences carry different punishments but it is unclear which one has been committed, how does Section 72 of the Indian Penal Code ensure proportional justice? (a) By imposing punishment for the offence with the lowest prescribed term (b) By applying punishment equal to the average of all possible offences (c) By leaving the choice of punishment to the prosecuting authority (d) By suspending the punishment until further clarification is made
Answer: (a) By imposing punishment for the offence with the lowest prescribed term Explanation: Section 72 IPC applies the rule of lenity where doubt exists between multiple offences punishment not to exceed the smallest prescribed maximum.
Q94. Mr. X owns a bakery where he employs Y, a 16-year-old adolescent. At first, X gives Y every Sunday off as his weekly holiday. After two months, X decides to change the weekly holiday to Wednesday and pastes a notice about this change on the bakery wall. According to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, this change is: (a) Valid, since employers can change the holidays anytime by giving notice. (b) Invalid, since weekly holidays cannot be altered before completion of at least three months. (c) Valid, since the adolescent is given a full day of rest every week. (d) Invalid, only if the notice is not displayed in the establishment.
Answer: (b) Invalid, since weekly holidays cannot be altered before completion of at least three months. Explanation: Child & Adolescent Labour Rules restrict changing weekly holiday more than once within three months.
Q95. Which person will not be treated as a consumer under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019? (a) A person who purchases a refrigerator on instalments for home use (b) A person who buys a television, partly paid and partly promised, for family use (c) A person who purchases goods for the purpose of resale or for any commercial purpose (d) A person who uses furniture brought by a relative with the latter's consent
Answer: (c) A person who purchases goods for the purpose of resale or for any commercial purpose
Explanation: Consumer Act excludes purchases for commercial/resale purposes.
Q96. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The President of India has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offence in cases where the punishment is by a Court Martial or where the sentence is death. Reason (R): This power under Article 72 overrides and completely nullifies the powers of the Governor to commute or remit a death sentence under State law. In the context of the above assertion and reason under Article 72 of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is correct? (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Explanation: Article 72 confers Presidential clemency powers (A true). The reason claiming that Article 72 overrides and nullifies Governor's powers is incorrect as stated (R false).
Q97. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement: Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a Magistrate may issue a protection order to prevent the respondent from committing acts of domestic violence, contacting the aggrieved person, alienating assets or stridhan without permission, or causing harm to her dependents. Conclusions: I. A protection order can cover not just physical violence but also financial and emotional aspects of domestic violence. II. The Magistrate has wide powers to restrict the respondent's conduct to safeguard the aggrieved person and her dependents. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, which one of the following is correct? (a) Only Conclusion I follows (b) Only Conclusion II follows (c) Both Conclusions I and II follow (d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Answer: (c) Both Conclusions I and II follow
Q98. According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, which factor determines the jurisdiction of the licensing authority in applying for a driving license? (a) The place where the applicant has family ancestral property. (b) The place where the applicant has held a bank account for more than a year. (c) The place where the applicant votes in local body elections. (d) The place where the applicant ordinarily resides or carries on business.
Answer: (d) The place where the applicant ordinarily resides or carries on business.
Explanation: Motor Vehicles Act determines licensing authority jurisdiction by applicant's ordinary residence or place of business.
Q99. If a convict sentenced to life imprisonment is being considered for remission fractions under Section 57 of the Indian Penal Code, which equivalent term of years is applied by the court? (a) Ten years of imprisonment (b) Twenty years of imprisonment (c) Forty years of imprisonment (d) Fifty years of imprisonment
Answer: (b) Twenty years of imprisonment.
Explanation: For purposes such as remission Section 57 IPC treats life imprisonment as equivalent to 20 years for fractional calculations.
Q100. According to the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, under what circumstance is the completion of five years of continuous service not mandatory for payment of gratuity to an employee by his employer? (a) Voluntary resignation from the post by the employee. (b) Dismissal of the employee due to misconduct at work. (c) Death or disablement of the employee due to accident or disease. (d) Transfer of the employee to another department within the same organization.
Answer: (c) Death or disablement of the employee due to accident or disease.
Explanation: Under the Payment of Gratuity Act the five-year continuous service requirement is waived in case of death or incapacitating disablement.
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